Hebrew Voices #109 – Does John 6:4 Belong in the New Testament – PART 1 of 4

In this episode of Hebrew Voices, Does John 6:4 Belong in the New Testament - PART 1 of 4, we examine the controversy about the Gospel of John which has raged for nearly 2,000 years, as we begin a 4-part series to solve a textual conundrum using technology John could not have imagined and drawing on resources unavailable even a few years ago.

I look forward to reading your comments!


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Does John 6:4 Belong in the New Testament - PART 2 of 4
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  • KT says:

    First off, I loved the discussion about how there are more historical records and textual evidence regarding the New Testament than works on other historical subjects — although the latter is automatically taken on greater trust by many modern readers and writers of criticisms and pseudo-encyclopedias (especially those On-line).

    I’m no scholar, but I kind’a always interpreted the verse of Acts 21:25 a bit differently from what sounded like an all-or-nothing debate voiced on the first part of John 6:4. Granted, being almost deaf, I may have missed the nuances of the discussion.

    My always read the verse as James, Paul, et al saying “they observe no such thing” to be meant in context of the practices being brought forth as concern at that incident: circumcision, ceremonial purification, and customs [my understandung is the term interpreted “law” in some versions can also mean “customs” [i.e., Jewish or cultural practices]. I never interpreted the verses to mean Gentile Christians need not follow the Ten Commandments (as one of the speakers may jokingly expressed as applying an all-or-nothing interpretation. If fact, other Bible verses (e.g., where Paul speaks out against those seeking to circumcision, keeping of days, ceremonial washing, eating “clean” vs “unclean”, etc.).

    Anyway, that was how I interpreted the verse, but that’s just from reading it and not being a language or textual scholar.